I've read and heard that over reduction of stock can change it
and mute some of the flavors. Has anyone found this to be true?

For example, if you take X amount of stock, reduce it by one quart,
then add back in one quart of water, will the flavor have changed
significantly? If so, how?

Thanks!

--
Reg email: RegForte (at) (that free MS email service) (dot) com

"Reg" > wrote in message
. ..
> I've read and heard that over reduction of stock can change it
> and mute some of the flavors. Has anyone found this to be true?
>
> For example, if you take X amount of stock, reduce it by one quart,
> then add back in one quart of water, will the flavor have changed
> significantly? If so, how?


I've never encountered a muting of flavors. Quite the opposite. Bases are
stocks which have been reduced to a paste. I think the ratio is something
like 50 gallons of stock to a pint of base. And bases are incredibly rich
and flavorful. They are the secret of many chefs.

Paul

Paul M. Cook©® wrote:

> I've never encountered a muting of flavors. Quite the opposite. Bases are
> stocks which have been reduced to a paste. I think the ratio is something
> like 50 gallons of stock to a pint of base. And bases are incredibly rich
> and flavorful. They are the secret of many chefs.

I didn't think so either. Just goes to show that you shouldn't believe
everything you read, even from experienced chefs.

--
Reg email: RegForte (at) (that free MS email service) (dot) com